Wikipedia:Reference desk/Archives/Mathematics/2009 March 19#Functional Convergence

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= March 19 =

== Functional Convergence ==

In a recent thread, if I understand correctly, pma says that \textstyle \sum_{1\leq k\leq n}\log\cos(k^2\sqrt{n^5}s) converges pointwise to \textstyle -s^2/10 as n approaces infinity. How would you prove that? Black Carrot (talk) 07:53, 19 March 2009 (UTC)

:Won't the limit depend on what branch of log you choose for negative arguments? Algebraist 10:23, 19 March 2009 (UTC)

::My apologies: I made a misprint there (now corrected): the change of variables was t= n^{-5/2}s, with a minus in the exponent (this is consistent with the line below, that had it). So the term \sqrt{n^5} is at the denominator, and the argument of log goes to 1 (actually, in that computation it was always positive). Do you see how to do it now?--pma (talk) 12:40, 19 March 2009 (UTC)

::Here it is:

:*Write the second order Taylor expansion for \textstyle \log \cos(x) at 0, with remainder in Peano form: so, for all x\in [0,\pi/2)

::\log\cos(x)=-\frac{x^2}{2}+o(x^2), as x\to0.

:*For any s we only have to consider the integers n>4s^2/\pi^2. Replace x=\frac{k^2}{\sqrt{n^5}}s=\frac{s}{\sqrt n}\left(\frac{k}{n}\right)^2 in the expansion above, getting

::\log\cos\left(\frac{k^2}{\sqrt{n^5}}s\right)= -\frac{s^2}{2n}\left(\frac{k}{n}\right)^4 +o(\frac{1}{n}), as n\to\infty, and uniformly for all 1\leq k\leq n.

:*Summing over all 1\leq k\leq n

::\textstyle \sum_{1\leq k\leq n}\log\cos(\frac{k^2}{\sqrt{n^5}}s)= -\frac {s^2}{2n} \sum_{1\leq k\leq n}\left(\frac{k}{n}\right)^4 +o(1) , as n\to\infty.

:*Then you may observe that \scriptstyle\frac {1}{n}\sum_{1\leq k\leq n}\left(\frac{k}{n}\right)^4 is the Riemann sum for the integral of x^4 on [0,1] (or use the formula for \scriptstyle\sum_{1\leq k\leq n}k^4) and conclude that the whole thing is \textstyle -\frac{s^2}{10}+o(1).

::Warning: I have re-edited this answer, to make it more simple and clear (hopefully) --pma (talk) 13:40, 19 March 2009 (UTC)

Differential Equation

How should one go about solving this equation.

y\frac{dy}{dx}=xy\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}+x\bigg(\frac{dy}{dx}\bigg)^2

92.9.236.44 (talk) 20:30, 19 March 2009 (UTC)

:The right hand side is x\frac{d}{dx}\bigg(y\frac{dy}{dx}\bigg). Does that help? —JAOTC 20:48, 19 March 2009 (UTC)

::Ah yes. It seems to yeild a solution of the form y = \sqrt{Ax^2+B} does that seem correct? —Preceding unsigned comment added by 92.9.236.44 (talk) 21:01, 19 March 2009 (UTC)

:::Check for yourself - differentiate that a couple of times, substitute everything in and see if the two sides match. If they do, you've got it right, if they don't, you haven't! --Tango (talk) 23:05, 19 March 2009 (UTC)