Wikipedia:Reference desk/Archives/Mathematics/2012 September 5#Project Euler question

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= September 5 =

Project Euler question

There is a Project Euler problem (whose number I am not quoting so the answer is not given away directly here), where one needs integer solutions to 2b^2 - 2b - n^2 + n = 0. b=3 and n=4 is one solution to this equation. The equations b' = 3b + 2n - 2 and n' = 4b +3n - 3 generate b' and n' which are also solutions to the equation. Two questions please: (1) How do I prove that the b' and n' equations are valid? (2) How does one do Diophantine magic and generate those equations in the first place? -- SGBailey (talk) 08:46, 5 September 2012 (UTC)

: The equation is equivalent to {{nowrap|1=2b(b − 1) = n(n − 1)}}. Now it becomes obvious {{nowrap|1=b = n = 1}} is another solution... --CiaPan (talk) 09:22, 5 September 2012 (UTC)

: I know the equations work, I've got a dozen solutions and could have a dozen more if I wanted them (they get quite big...). But I'm interested in the proof and creation of the "next set of solutions" equations. Yes 1,1 is a solution. So is 0,1. But so is 3,4. -- SGBailey (talk) 09:36, 5 September 2012 (UTC)

:I don't know where they come from, but it's simple enough to show that they work: just plug your formulas for b' and n' into the original equation and simplify. You'll get 2b^2 - 2b - n^2 + n = 0. Under the assumption that you started with a solution, this shows that b' and n' are a solution.--121.73.35.181 (talk) 10:25, 5 September 2012 (UTC)

:: (1) solved. You are right thanks - when I tried that previously, I went wrong; but it worked ok second time. So (2) where did the generating equations come from??? -- SGBailey (talk) 11:26, 5 September 2012 (UTC)

:::Convergents (p,q) to the continued fraction expansion of sqrt(2) are (1,1), (3,2), (7,5), (17,12), (41,29) etc (see Pell number). Alternate convergents (1,1), (7,5), (41,29) etc. satisfy

::::p^2 = 2q^2 - 1

:::Successive convergents in this sequence are related by the recurrence relations

::::p' = 4q + 3p \quad q' = 3q + 2p

:::Use the transform

::::n = \frac{p+1}{2} \quad b = \frac{q+1}{2}

::: and you get the (n,b) sequence (1,1), (4,3), (21, 15) etc. which satisfies

::::(2n-1)^2 = 2(2b-1)^2 - 1 \Rightarrow 4n^2 - 4n + 1 = 8b^2 - 8b + 1 \Rightarrow n^2 - n = 2b^2 - 2b

:::with the recurrence relations

::::n' = 4b + 3n - 3 \quad b' = 3b + 2n - 2

:::Gandalf61 (talk) 12:08, 5 September 2012 (UTC)

:::: Thank you (I think). I didn't understand most of that, but I'll study it for a few days and see if it makes any sense then. -- SGBailey (talk) 13:11, 5 September 2012 (UTC)

Complex variables inequality

Hi. I'm working in a book, and looking at a claim that goes as follows: For |e^z - 1|\leq \frac{1}{2}, we have \frac{1}{2}|z| \leq |e^z - 1| \leq 2|z|. I've checked this by doing a change of variables \zeta=e^z-1, parameterizing the circle |\zeta|=\frac{1}{2}, and checking that \frac{1}{2}|\log(\zeta + 1)| \leq |\zeta|=\frac{1}{2} \leq 2|\log(\zeta + 1)| all around the circle (for the principal branch). I checked just by graphing the left and right as functions of a real variable, and sure enough, they stayed away from \frac{1}{2}. This is terribly awkward, though. Does anyone know an easier way to see this? Thanks in advance. -GTBacchus(talk) 19:54, 5 September 2012 (UTC)

:Unless I’m missing something, the first part of the inequality is false.

:I will type * for times, and ^ for ”to the power of”.

:Because, suppose that z = 2pi*i. Then e^z = e^(2pi*i) = cos(2pi) + i*sin(2pi) = 1 + 0 = 1. So then |e^z - 1| = 0, which is less than 1/2. So z = 2pi*i satisfies the assumption.

:But then the first part of the inequality, (1/2)|z| <= |e^z -1|, becomes (1/2)(2pi) <= 0, or pi <= 0, which is just not true. Cardamon (talk) 07:00, 8 September 2012 (UTC)

::Yeah, I noticed that too. The inequality applies for z close to 0, not close to other multiples of 2pi*i. It can be fixed by adding the condition that |z|<1 or something.

::I seem to have it figured out. The trick is to do the substitution \zeta=e^z-1, and assume that |\zeta|\leq\frac{1}{2}; this obviates the problem you mention. Then you really want to show that \frac{1}{2}|\zeta|\leq|\log(\zeta + 1)|\leq 2|\zeta|. This can be accomplished by playing with the series expansion of \log(\zeta + 1) and the triangle inequality. -GTBacchus(talk) 01:59, 11 September 2012 (UTC)